If the government has proof that "the Russians" stole the DNC emails and released them through Wikileaks, why haven't they indicted Assange for "collusion" to interfere in the 2016 election? Do you suppose the government's case against "Russia" is based on supposition and not on any hard evidence? That's my guess. They have proof the Russians hacked the network, and were on it when the emails were stolen, but none that they actually downloaded the emails and/or that they sent them to Assange. Considering that the NSA has archived all internet traffic logs, that part should be easy, right? So what's the hold up?