Arkady
President
I'm still trying to wrap my head around how the Hobby Lobby reasoning is meant to work. It seems to stand for the idea that some types of businesses shouldn't have to contribute money that could ultimately indirectly pay for things that offend certain state-supported religious beliefs, if they don't want (e.g., if your religion objects to IUDs, the state defers to that faith, but if your religion objects to the use of blood products, you deserve no such deference). But businesses have ALWAYS had to contribute money that could ultimately indirectly pay for things that offend the religious beliefs of their owners. For example, taxes go to make war, even if you have a religious objection to war. Even when it comes to birth control, this is true. Your taxes indirectly pay for various kinds of birth control -- for example, condoms distributed to our soldiers. So, why is it OK for religious people to have to fund things they object to if the money flows through Uncle Sam but not if it flows through a private insurer?
And why doesn't this work the other way. I mean, the money that goes to the insurer isn't really the business's money, anyway. It's money that's mandated for an EMPLOYEE'S benefit, by law. It's the employee's money. It may be handed from the employer to the insurer, but the employer effectively just held it in trust for the employee, much in the same way as employee earnings that get direct deposited by the employer into the employee's retirement account. So, if it is, by law, money earmarked for the employee's benefit, why isn't it the employee's faith that counts, rather than the employer's?
And why doesn't this work the other way. I mean, the money that goes to the insurer isn't really the business's money, anyway. It's money that's mandated for an EMPLOYEE'S benefit, by law. It's the employee's money. It may be handed from the employer to the insurer, but the employer effectively just held it in trust for the employee, much in the same way as employee earnings that get direct deposited by the employer into the employee's retirement account. So, if it is, by law, money earmarked for the employee's benefit, why isn't it the employee's faith that counts, rather than the employer's?